Hello Experts!
I am trying to post an intercompany asset transfer through ABT1 with manual revenuw posting. Below is the entry created in sending company code.
1. Entry in sending company code A
Fixed assets CR 1000
Acc. Dep. DR 100
Asset clearing sale DR 800
Loss on asset dis. DR 100
2. Entry in receiving company code B
Fixed assets DR 1000
Acc. Dep. CR 100
Accrued. Liab. CR 900
Above are the entries generated in respective company codes. Now the user wants the manual clearing amount of 800 needs to be the GBV in new company code B. Just curious about the different practices being followed elsewhere. Is it a normal practice every where or the entry created through ABT1 is practiced normally?
Desired entry by user -
Fixed asset DR 800
Accrued Liab CR 800
They want the purchase value to be the gross asset value for the new company code and with no Acc. dep. calculated.
Is it possible throuh ABT1/ABT1N? Or any other process, needs to be followed in this case.
Aprreciate a quick response.
Regards
Partha